Orginal chords [ Cm7 ][ F7 ][ Bbmaj7 ]
If you play a line over the tritone sub of the 7 chord and drop in a ii of the tritone in the same bar [ Cm7 ][ F#m7 B7 ][ Bbmaj7 ] do you usually voice the ii chord (F#m7) in your left hand assuming the bass player is playing an F?

I don't know if there is an actual rule to that.. I think it's more about what works for you ears or not. For me playing anything outside is matter of making it "sound right" rather than what's actually right.. in that sense you can superimpose any changes.

For me it really depends on what the RH is doing..if the RH is just outlying the B7, than I'd probably just stick with B7 on LH. BUt if you line is clearly outlining a ii-V, in this case F#m7-B7, then I'd play LH voicing for both.

No, was not asking if there was a rule, just curious how you all play it. I think quartal voicing the Cm7 as F-Bb-Eb and then the F#m7 as F#-B-E just a halfstep down and then voice B7 with just A and Eb sounds pretty neat, but it wouldn't sound that good if the bass player puts a pedal point on F ie. I know alot of pianists use similar approaches on modal tunes and I wonder if ya'll do it on tonal progressions aswell.