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It is a simple question. Why sometimes a pair of eighth notes are played with a long-short rhythm ?

I think this is common in jazz music. I think your question is why the transcription doesn't use a dotted eighth note followed by a sixteenth note.

I believe there are 2 reasons for this:

(1) Using the pair of eighth notes makes the music easier to read.
(2) The rhythm isn't supposed to be exactly 3/16 followed by 1/16. So to write it the more complicated way wouldn't be technically correct either.

This is an old performance practice dating back to the French Baroque era and earlier.

I would suggest you look up "Notes inégales" on Wikipedia.

Why? Because "it don't mean a thing, if it ain't got that swing!"

It's something that comes from the heart. It can't be written out. You can cut and add as you feel. Just slightly. Maybe more? It's up to you.

Thanks for the laugh this am Andy

I'll add that ONE of the reasons they're not normally written as dotted sixteenth's is because they're more usually based on triplets or are considered to be a derivative of a 12/8 time sig. The unequal note of the french baroque is closer to a double dotted sixteenth and would never bounce as much as a blues shuffle. The shuffle of the blues is different from the swing of jazz. There's an infinite amount of space between one note and another in which to place a middle beat. Written music is an inexact attempt to record how to play a piece and it is only a beginning point. The amount of the ranges of variation in phrasing and style are almost endless as you will find when you start your own attempts at interpretation. When I went from 20 years of drumming to playing a woodwind with a small ensemble, It took months to get used to how free they were with the time. Even now, on the piano, my teacher struggles to get me to play what she calls "freely and with expression."

Kurt

In my line of work, Andy nailed it

Cathy