2022 our 25th year online!

Welcome to the Piano World Piano Forums
Over 3 million posts about pianos, digital pianos, and all types of keyboard instruments.
Over 100,000 members from around the world.
Join the World's Largest Community of Piano Lovers (it's free)
It's Fun to Play the Piano ... Please Pass It On!

SEARCH
Piano Forums & Piano World
(ad)
Who's Online Now
53 members (Chris B, Cheeeeee, Carey, CharlesXX, Aleks_MG, accordeur, brdwyguy, 10 invisible), 2,009 guests, and 333 robots.
Key: Admin, Global Mod, Mod
Previous Thread
Next Thread
Print Thread
Hop To
Page 4 of 5 1 2 3 4 5
Joined: Nov 2008
Posts: 6,425
6000 Post Club Member
Offline
6000 Post Club Member
Joined: Nov 2008
Posts: 6,425
Originally Posted by Tunewerk
Originally Posted by UnrightTooner
If you get a chance, spend a few hours with a big old upright. Get a really good RBI progression above the break with strict 4:2 octaves. Then expand it below the break, again with 4:2 octaves. Listen to the beatrate of the highest M3 and M6 that cross the break. They will be faster than the ones a semitone higher. See how many semitones you need to go before you find the M3 and the M6 that have the same beatrates as the highest ones that straddle the break. Now do the same thing with strict 6:3 octaves.


I finally see what you've been trying to relay here. It's interesting and I've spent some time with it, although I don't think about it the same. It seems like there's a good deal of incorrect info on this above.

If you take 6:3 octaves down to the break, the spread will be greater over all intervals. The M3rd will have a faster descending beatrate than if you approached the break with 4:2 octaves.

Contracting to 4:2 octaves right as you get to the break, will then smooth the M3rds in most cases. The drop in iH will be counteracted on both sides instead of being compensated for on only one.

This is the principal trick with breaks.

I don't see why the octave test is important to you. I see this as just dealing with the knowledge of expansion and contraction over variable inharmonicity.

With an expanded temperament, M3rds will be faster and 5ths nearer pure. As you approach the break, the octave will be contracted to maintain M3rd progression, but since 6:3 or 8:4 is used prior, you won't have to go to a 2:1 to maintain progression. The 5ths crossing over will be more narrow, so stretch compromises between the 3rds and 5ths will be necessary. The 5ths are always more important in my opinion.

Fourths will come out great, as nearly pure. Minor thirds will speed up, but that's a small price to pay, especially since the transition region for m3rds is the least of all intervals (4 steps).

This brings up another interesting subject. I personally think the integrity of the 5ths, 8ves and 12ths take priority for serious musicians. This means there WILL be a bump in the M3rd beatrate if these more important intervals are to take priority. The bump can be smoothed, but problems happen if the M3rds are given more importance than they are due.


"I personally think the integrity of the 5ths, 8ves and 12ths take priority for serious musicians. This means there WILL be a bump in the M3rd beatrate if these more important intervals are to take priority. The bump can be smoothed, but problems happen if the M3rds are given more importance than they are due."

I agree completely! The 5ths and octaves should take priority. And I think it is a mistake to use a wider octave type when the iH is higher (above a break)and a narrower type when the iH is lower (below a break). Isn't it better to use more stretch on larger pianos and unecessary on smaller pianos?

The whole thing with progressive RBIs across a break is more of a mind exersize. But we can use the same mind exersize with 5ths and octaves. If we want the most consistent 5ths and 2:1 octaves across a break, then tuning with pure 12th is approriate. The internal test for a pure 12th is the P5-P8 test. This is one of the rationales that I use for justifying tuning with P12s. Another rationale is that pure 12th result in narrower octave types when the iH is high and wider octave types when the iH is low.

But "when the rubber meets the road" you have to deal with what the wound strings are really like. No battle plan has ever survived a battle, but it is still best to have a plan.


Jeff Deutschle
Part-Time Tuner
Who taught the first chicken how to peck?
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
T
500 Post Club Member
Offline
500 Post Club Member
T
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
Originally Posted by UnrightTooner
The whole thing with progressive RBIs across a break is more of a mind exersize. But we can use the same mind exersize with 5ths and octaves. If we want the most consistent 5ths and 2:1 octaves across a break, then tuning with pure 12th is appropiate. The internal test for a pure 12th is the P5-P8 test. This is one of the rationales that I use for justifying tuning with P12s. Another rationale is that pure 12th result in narrower octave types when the iH is high and wider octave types when the iH is low.


Clever point about the 12ths, gauging iH. I think it's important to state that the octave created by the 12th in higher iH, would be narrower in relative octave type number, but wider in cents, than the octave type created in lower iH. I'll have to try that in practice.

I'm glad you agree about the interval priority. So often in this tuning machine age, I see people who stoutly prioritize M3rds over all else, just because the machines do!

I still don't see why you relate grouped tests to consistent intervals. Using the 12th test, for instance, a pure 12th can be tested internally by the 5th above the bottom note, which allows you to listen to the 12th, 8ve and 5th. This is good for knowing that the 2nd internal partial is located a consistent distance below the 1st of the top note and the 3rd of the bottom (which should be aligned in a pure 12th).

However, the relative beat rate ratio between the internal 5th and 8ve will only be heard as you tune 12ths across the break. The first few notes will include a compromise between the lower 5th and 12th. But what about the octave in that region?

To gauge the 4th, 5th, 8ve and 3rds compromise across a break, you need to listen directly to those intervals. Expansion and contraction are the only two variables. I don't see how beat equivalency tests are the answer for this. I'd like to know your view on it in more detail.

Do you do this because it helps gauge the movement of the lower interval to one above, unaffected by the break, while (in the case of the 12th) being surrounded by another larger interval, tuned to the break?

At some point I guess we should get back to CM3rds.. I'm sorry Prout.


www.tunewerk.com

Unity of tone through applied research.
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
No worries Tunework. This is fascinating stuff.

I am interested in techniques for tuning across the break. On my piano, the break is at F2/F#2. The iH for F2 is 0.1008 and for F#2 is 0.1436, but, due to string/bridge/soundboard anomalies, the first partial of F#2 is 12.4 cents flat of theoretical, yet still produces the precise expected partials as if it were not flat. How do you establish a reasonable sounding octave with this problem? I tune it by ear to great the least wobbly sound, but it is not great.

Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
T
500 Post Club Member
Offline
500 Post Club Member
T
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
You don't. smile

Originally Posted by Prout
The iH for F2 is 0.1008 and for F#2 is 0.1436, but, due to string/bridge/soundboard anomalies, the first partial of F#2 is 12.4 cents flat of theoretical, yet still produces the precise expected partials as if it were not flat.


Please explain - is your machine telling you that F#2 P1 should be 12.4 cents flat, or is P1 flatter than predicted by the rest of the spectrum (P2 is at ~1212.6c, and the rest is regular)? If so, that would make sense.

To keep it really simple, all that's happening at a break is the rapid reduction of iH, along with spectrum anomalies. You can't worry about the anomalies, because sometimes there is no good solution to them. Those, you work out in situ.

For the iH reduction, a maximally expanded temperament above the break, coupled with the widest possible 8ves over the break that are palatable, leading to narrower 8ves after the break is the best solution. The idea is to feather the sudden difference between two scaling sections over a greater range.

Think about it simply, and you'll be better equipped to deal with it.


www.tunewerk.com

Unity of tone through applied research.
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Tunewerk
You don't. smile

Originally Posted by Prout
The iH for F2 is 0.1008 and for F#2 is 0.1436, but, due to string/bridge/soundboard anomalies, the first partial of F#2 is 12.4 cents flat of theoretical, yet still produces the precise expected partials as if it were not flat.


Please explain - is your machine telling you that F#2 P1 should be 12.4 cents flat, or is P1 flatter than predicted by the rest of the spectrum (P2 is at ~1212.6c, and the rest is regular)? If so, that would make sense.



My measurements (disregard the actual frequencies - I tune in Young I) show P1 at 91.36Hz (which should be 92.07), P2 at 184.18HZ, P3 at 276.37Hz and so on, using P0 at 92.064Hz. If I tune P1 to 92.07, the upper partials beat like crazy.

Expanding the octave downward over the break is the only way to get it to sound decent. Thanks for the advice.

Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
T
500 Post Club Member
Offline
500 Post Club Member
T
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
Originally Posted by Prout
My measurements show P1 at 91.36Hz (which should be 92.07), P2 at 184.18Hz, P3 at 276.37Hz and so on, using P0 at 92.064Hz. If I tune P1 to 92.07, the upper partials beat like crazy.


I responded too quickly initially. How are you measuring this?

Yes, from that spectrum you will have a heck of a time getting decent sounding octaves. I'd recommend you tuning slowly rolling octaves above the break in an extremely expanded pure 5ths temperament. This way, when you traverse the break you may have a chance at getting decent 4ths/5ths while maintaining 3rd progression. The octaves should be expected to roll, with a gradual reduction, ending in a good, clean bass.

If this is actually a sharp second partial, which would make more sense, and the notes near F#2 mirror this behaviour, then depending on the strength of this partial you will have an especially problematic tuning.

Last edited by Tunewerk; 01/18/14 11:27 PM.

www.tunewerk.com

Unity of tone through applied research.
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Tunewerk
Originally Posted by Prout
My measurements show P1 at 91.36Hz (which should be 92.07), P2 at 184.18HZ, P3 at 276.37Hz and so on, using P0 at 92.064Hz. If I tune P1 to 92.07, the upper partials beat like crazy.


Yes, from that spectrum you will have a heck of a time getting decent sounding octaves. I'd recommend you tuning slowly rolling octaves above the break in an extremely expanded pure 5ths temperament. This way, when you traverse the break you may have a chance at getting decent 4ths/5ths. The octaves should be expected to roll, with a gradual reduction, ending in a good, clean bass.

I responded too quickly initially. How are you measuring this?

If this is actually a sharp second partial, which would make more sense, and the notes near F#2 mirror this behaviour, then depending on the strength of this partial you will have an especially problematic tuning. The above advice still applies as the solution of best fit.


Actually, the second partial and all the succeeding partials up through P32 match with the theoretical P0. It is P1 that is really flat.

I use a reference mic (flat to below 20Hz) feeding a 24 bit ADC to produce a wave file (many files per note tested over some months). The wave file is analysed by a Java programme I wrote which produces an output file read by Excel. I find the peak energy lines (which correspond to the partials as well as resultant partials). I perform a LINEST function on the partials using the standard iH formula. I achieve +/- errors for iH of 0.2% and for P0 of 1%, so I have confidence in the data.

All of the single wound strings produce flat partials (P1-P4) in the -5 cent range, which actually helps. I stretch the bass a fair bit (A0 = -29 cents) which gives me beautiful partials in the P8-P16 range. Only the one note F#2 is really wonky.

Thanks again for your suggestions. I will work them into my next tuning.

Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
T
500 Post Club Member
Offline
500 Post Club Member
T
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
Really interesting, Prout.

Originally Posted by Prout
Actually, the second partial and all the succeeding partials up through P32 match with the theoretical P0. It is P1 that is really flat.


Are you calling P0 the fundamental frequency? If so, then you are describing a flat 2nd partial (P1) in F#2? I am unsure what you are saying here.

Sounds like you need to replace the strings for F#2.


www.tunewerk.com

Unity of tone through applied research.
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Tunewerk
Really interesting, Prout.

Originally Posted by Prout
Actually, the second partial and all the succeeding partials up through P32 match with the theoretical P0. It is P1 that is really flat.


Are you calling P0 the fundamental frequency? If so, then you are describing a flat 2nd partial (P1) in F#2? I am unsure what you are saying here.

Sounds like you need to replace the strings for F#2.


Sorry about the confusing terminology. P0 is the fundamental frequency used in the iH formula to calculate the partials . If the iH was 0, P1 (the note actually tuned) would equal P0. In the bass, iH's around 0.1 ( I use B times 1000 to describe the iH ) the difference between P0 and P1 is only a couple 100ths of a Hertz.

Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
T
500 Post Club Member
Offline
500 Post Club Member
T
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
Good to straighten that out; I haven't worked with that terminology in awhile. I did indeed get the same numbers predicting a 92.06Hz P0 from the inharmonicity equation.

This means that from the equation perspective, P1 is flat, but from a tuning perspective, I would consider P2 - P[n] to be sharp.

I know the equation perspective is more correct, since all the other partials share a common inharmonicity coefficient and P1 exhibits negative inharmonicity. The critical, simple thing to keep in mind when tuning however, is that there is a greater space between P1 and P2 than the rest of the series for F#2 because of this negative iH.

I'd expand the octaves above F#2 as much as they could handle, as F#2 has even more iH in a sense, given the flat fundamental. The F#2 octave should roll slightly if things are lining up correctly, but the high frequencies will be correct.

Across the break, I'd immediately start tightening the octaves to control the roll of the 4ths and smooth the M3rds. The 5ths should be good.

Approaching intervals involving the F#2 on the other side will be tricky, as the note will be flat relatively. Expand the octave here a little more to segue into wider expansion over the break into the bass.


www.tunewerk.com

Unity of tone through applied research.
Joined: Jan 2011
Posts: 1,734
C
1000 Post Club Member
Offline
1000 Post Club Member
C
Joined: Jan 2011
Posts: 1,734
Tunewerk, I thought it the other way around. P0 being the nominal frequency f0 used for the calculations, and P1 being the first partial using n=1 in the formula. Like that, P1 will be slightly sharp, as with the rest of the partials.

For example, the note A4=nominal 440Hz. According the the equation P1 = 440.01.

Did I get this wrong prout?


Chris Leslie
Piano technician, ARPT
http://www.chrisleslie.com.au
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
T
500 Post Club Member
Offline
500 Post Club Member
T
Joined: Mar 2011
Posts: 585
Yes, but can be used in forward or reverse.

In this case, there's a different 'B' for P1-P2 and P2-P[n], so backwards extrapolation using the dominant 'B' (P2-P[n]) to determine what P1 'should' be, is represented by P0. The actual P1 frequency measures flat of this.


www.tunewerk.com

Unity of tone through applied research.
Joined: Jan 2011
Posts: 1,734
C
1000 Post Club Member
Offline
1000 Post Club Member
C
Joined: Jan 2011
Posts: 1,734
Well that complicates the theory when 'B' varies across the partials!

I wonder if prout can derive individual 'B's for each partial using other 'P's spectral frequencies, and then find out just how much iH can vary for given strings. I think that a high level of precision would be required of the frequency spectrum to calculate reliable 'B's.

Or perhaps I should watch my P's and Q's laugh

Last edited by Chris Leslie; 01/19/14 03:52 AM.

Chris Leslie
Piano technician, ARPT
http://www.chrisleslie.com.au
Joined: May 2001
Posts: 6,563
H
6000 Post Club Member
Online Content
6000 Post Club Member
H
Joined: May 2001
Posts: 6,563
prout,

Are you using this formula for IH calculations?

[Linked Image]
"where n is the partial number (n = 1 for the fundamental) and B is the inharmonicity coefficient"

from this site

Last edited by Hakki; 01/19/14 06:42 AM. Reason: clarity
Joined: Feb 2011
Posts: 4,331
W
4000 Post Club Member
Offline
4000 Post Club Member
W
Joined: Feb 2011
Posts: 4,331
Prout

A passing thought. Have you checked the offending F#2 string and its termination points to see if you can spot anything that might cause the fundamental to be flat?


Ian Russell
Schiedmayer & Soehne, 1925 Model 14, 140cm
Ibach, 1905 F-IV, 235cm
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Hakki
prout,

Are you using this formula for IH calculations?

[Linked Image]
"where n is the partial number (n = 1 for the fundamental) and B is the inharmonicity coefficient"

from this site

Hi Hakki,
I don't that formula. It is a simplification of the original formula - the nth partial equals n times the idealized fundamental frequency (P0) times the square root of ( 1+ B times n squared), where B is the measured coefficient of inharmonicity.

Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Chris Leslie
Tunewerk, I thought it the other way around. P0 being the nominal frequency f0 used for the calculations, and P1 being the first partial using n=1 in the formula. Like that, P1 will be slightly sharp, as with the rest of the partials.

For example, the note A4=nominal 440Hz. According the the equation P1 = 440.01.

Did I get this wrong prout?


For most of the treble bridge strings you are correct - P1 will always be sharper than P0 since all strings have iH. However, the lower strings exhibit anomalies, likely due to bridge/soundboard/string interactions that are not well researched (at least from my limited reading of the literature) that cause the lower partials, in some cases up through the fifth partial, to be unpredictably flat.

Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Tunewerk
Good to straighten that out; I haven't worked with that terminology in awhile. I did indeed get the same numbers predicting a 92.06Hz P0 from the inharmonicity equation.

This means that from the equation perspective, P1 is flat, but from a tuning perspective, I would consider P2 - P[n] to be sharp.

I know the equation perspective is more correct, since all the other partials share a common inharmonicity coefficient and P1 exhibits negative inharmonicity. The critical, simple thing to keep in mind when tuning however, is that there is a greater space between P1 and P2 than the rest of the series for F#2 because of this negative iH.

I'd expand the octaves above F#2 as much as they could handle, as F#2 has even more iH in a sense, given the flat fundamental. The F#2 octave should roll slightly if things are lining up correctly, but the high frequencies will be correct.

Across the break, I'd immediately start tightening the octaves to control the roll of the 4ths and smooth the M3rds. The 5ths should be good.

Approaching intervals involving the F#2 on the other side will be tricky, as the note will be flat relatively. Expand the octave here a little more to segue into wider expansion over the break into the bass.


Thanks again Tunewerk for your thoughts. I will tune tomorrow and Tuesday using your ideas. My tuner/tech is coming Tuesday to spend the day with me and the piano to work on tuning and voicing. It his first time tuning this piano, so we will have fun with the tenor break. I am going to set the temperament octave and he is going to tune the rest of the piano. He tunes really nice octaves so it will be interesting to see what he wants to do in the low end.

Last edited by prout; 01/19/14 09:51 AM.
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Chris Leslie
Well that complicates the theory when 'B' varies across the partials!

I wonder if prout can derive individual 'B's for each partial using other 'P's spectral frequencies, and then find out just how much iH can vary for given strings. I think that a high level of precision would be required of the frequency spectrum to calculate reliable 'B's.

Or perhaps I should watch my P's and Q's laugh


Hi Chris,

When I did my first reading on iH and found the standard formula, it was described as providing a reasonable approximation of the actual partial frequencies. In practice, that appears to be correct. On the strings where I can measure the individual frequencies of the first thirty-two partials, the formula predictions and the actual measurements match within 0.5 cents for all the partials above P5, and in most cases, all partials above P1, which is within my measurement error, implying that the formula is more accurate than I thought.

I tried deriving individual Bs for each partial as a means of deriving the overall iH of the string, but the individual measurement error is to large to derive a valid answer. Using the data from all 32 partials and finding a 'best fit' slope (iH) provides a much more accurate answer.

Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
P
prout Offline OP
4000 Post Club Member
OP Offline
4000 Post Club Member
P
Joined: Nov 2013
Posts: 4,831
Originally Posted by Withindale
Prout

A passing thought. Have you checked the offending F#2 string and its termination points to see if you can spot anything that might cause the fundamental to be flat?


My tech will look at this on Tuesday.

Page 4 of 5 1 2 3 4 5

Moderated by  Piano World, platuser 

Link Copied to Clipboard
What's Hot!!
Piano World Has Been Sold!
--------------------
Forums RULES, Terms of Service & HELP
(updated 06/06/2022)
---------------------
Posting Pictures on the Forums
(ad)
(ad)
New Topics - Multiple Forums
Recommended Songs for Beginners
by FreddyM - 04/16/24 03:20 PM
New DP for a 10 year old
by peelaaa - 04/16/24 02:47 PM
Estonia 1990
by Iberia - 04/16/24 11:01 AM
Very Cheap Piano?
by Tweedpipe - 04/16/24 10:13 AM
Practical Meaning of SMP
by rneedle - 04/16/24 09:57 AM
Forum Statistics
Forums43
Topics223,392
Posts3,349,302
Members111,634
Most Online15,252
Mar 21st, 2010

Our Piano Related Classified Ads
| Dealers | Tuners | Lessons | Movers | Restorations |

Advertise on Piano World
| Piano World | PianoSupplies.com | Advertise on Piano World |
| |Contact | Privacy | Legal | About Us | Site Map


Copyright © VerticalScope Inc. All Rights Reserved.
No part of this site may be reproduced without prior written permission
Powered by UBB.threads™ PHP Forum Software 7.7.5
When you purchase through links on our site, we may earn an affiliate commission, which supports our community.