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In contrast to piano music, is there a real difference in slurs in string music? I know that the down bow and up bow are used, but is that based on the type of sound needed and on the discretion of the player?

I see in many Beethoven quartets that he often does not even slur a passage, usually a fast 16th note passage. Is this played semi-legato, or is it understood just as legato? Having less slur marks in a score would be a lot more helpful, since I find they clash often with other markings in Finale when I compose something of that nature.

Beethoven's indications are difficult to decipher sometimes.

There are actually some bowing indications in some of the piano sonatas. Probably the most famous example is in the recitative of op. 110. See all of those repeated A's tied together? Those ties are actually slurs (achieved on the violin by a change of bow direction). Both notes should sound, although the second one is much less present than the first. Similar indications are in the scherzo of the A major cello sonata (at the very beginning of the movement and in other places as well).

Here's something to make you think:

In Beethoven, does a slur over the right hand line mean everything is legato or just the right hand? Look through op. 81a and try to see if he is consistent.

Your the expert, but IMO his slurs over the right hand men just the right hand - have to look at 81a, though for the inconsistency. There are examples wher he phrases the right and left hand differently.

Here's another interpretation of the slurred notes of the recit. in op. 110. I heard once that it was meant to imitate the vibrato that was possible on a clavichord, meaning it is one long A with vibrato (grain of salt time again).