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This came up in the Lang Lang thread, but it really is a topic of it's own. So let's talk about Lang Lang there, and I'll copy the little beginning of a discussion on a different topic here: posted by Jeff135:
It is the artists' job to interpret the music and make it his/her own, but the artist is never and should never feel that he/she is above the composer. posted by pianojerome:
Why not? Is there a reason why the performer should always be/feel subservient to the composer? posted by pianoloverus:
So if Beethoven writes "p" you think it's OK to play "f"? My interpretation of Jeff's statement is that he thinks the performer should follow the composer's markings in the score (which I totally agree with). posted by pianojerome:
If, after much careful consideration, the performer thinks that 'p' is much better (as my teacher strongly believes about the ending of Tchaikovsky's dumka (marked ff), or if Horowitz thinks that Mendelssohn's Variations should end FFF instead of pp), then all the power to him. Why?
1. There is no risk of offending the composer. (if that is an important concern) Mendelssohn is dead, so he won't know how Horowitz played his Variations Serieuses ending.
2. Mendelssohn could be wrong, too -- fff might sound better than pp in this context, and if that's the case, then we shouldn't play it the "worse" way simply because Mendelssohn made a mistake. We should, of course, play it the "better" way.
3. There are multiple ways of interpreting music, and people prefer different interpretations -- we agree on this -- and it would be just as incompatible to say that Mendelssohn's way is the only correct way, just as it would be to say that Horowitz's or Thibaudet's or Perahia's way is the only correct way. We might reasonably disagree with Horowitz's ending -- not simply because it's different from Mendelssohn's ending -- just as we might reasonably disagree with Mendelssohn's ending.
4. Composers have been known to change their minds. Horowitz made suggestions to Rachmaninov for significant alterations, and Rach approved some of them. Bartok recorded his "6 Romanian Dances" (which were actually not his own tunes anyway) at least 3 times, for 3 different instrumentations, and he made all sorts of rhythmic/note/register changes each time. It's obviously much more politically correct if the composer can approve the changes; but if the composer is dead, then that doesn't change the notion that he might not have minded various changes.... if that is actually important.
There are 4 reasons. I'm not suggestion making these changes willy-nilly -- no, of course not. But after careful study and thought about the music, one feels a change would improve the music, there are 4 reasons why I think the change isn't so blasphemous.
So now, I'll ask you (and others):
If, after careful consideration, the performer feels 'ff' would be better than the composer's written 'pp', then why should the performer necessarily conform to the composer's notation?
Please be specific. I know that "the composer is the composer" -- that's quite obvious! :p posted by Janus Sachs
I hate to say this, but since recording was made a reality in the late 19th century some have wondered if the composer would always be more important than the performer. At this day and age, it seems clear that the performer has overthrown the composer, especially since recording has made it possible to preserve a performer's work for eternity. I don't like it, but I've almost resigned myself to this. So yes, people can disregard god knows what markings in a score, and no one will be the wiser, and performers will be immortalized anyway. Alas. posted by pianojerome:
I don't think anyone needs to overthrow anyone. Just play the music and have a good time.
So Horowitz played the end of Variations Serieuses at fff, instead of pp.... but, he played all of Mendelssohn's notes. He played of Mendelssohn's harmonies and rhythms. I'm not arguing about the significance of the change -- I'm just pointing out that not only did he change something, but at the same time he kept to a lot.
People don't complain as much about "overthrowing the composer" when the change is an added accelerando, or a little extra rubato. People complain about dynamics. Six of one, half a dozen of the other, right? ....
Sam
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Interpritations change.
At the end of one of Griegs lyric pieces, I really wanted to play in pp instead of f to get a dying away feeling.
Couldn't a change in the instrument also effect interpritation over time? Mozart's piano is NOT like ours today.
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As a composer I have no worries of getting overthrown by the performer. In fact I have many problems with recorded music, which I don't consider it "art" in it's owm merit (it's a long story, so I won't go into details). The performer should be able to merge the will of the composer, which comes to him through the score, and his own personality. Dynamics is not a vastly important matter, although in solo music the performer has greater power than an orchestra has (not necessarily but usually). Changing more and more things doesn't invade, sort of, the will of the composer, who shouldn't mind really, but if I spent all my life studying and create my masterpiece, I'm not sure I'd like to have everyone coming and taking their own ideas on pitches... I guess the same thing would be if a performer, captured a brilliant recording, only to be taken by a DJ and thrown into a sampler. How would the pianists feel with this idea? (not exactly the same, I know, just saying...) Nice subject.
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Originally posted by Debussy20: Couldn't a change in the instrument also effect interpretation over time? Mozart's piano is NOT like ours today. While that is true, that doesn't justify some changes. For example, in the 3rd mvt. of Beethoven's op.53: People play it way too slowly, and many 'cheat' on the octave glissandi. They claim that the stiffer action won't let them play quickly, and that it makes octave glissandi impossible. IMO, they're just lacking finger strength. I can play octave glissandi, in both directions, with both hands. (No, it's NOT impossible to do an ascending RH octave glissando, contrary to popular belief. Nor is it hard.)
Practice makes permanent - Perfect practice makes perfect.
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Copied from the other thread:
Well, agogic nuances are a lot harder to indicate precisely, and what's more, every period in music history has a different approach to indicating (if at all) and performing agogic nuances. But on that note, have you heard Richard Strauss's Die Zauberflote overture? That is one case of agogic schizophrenia. And regarding dynamics, they can make a world of difference. The one dynamic "tradition" that irks me is the very end of Schumann's Fantasy, where one is supposed to maintain a forte level until the final two C major chords, which are piano. Almost everyone puts a decrescendo and drops down to piano a few measures early! Now, I agree with you that in most music, pitches and rhythms, i.e. the structural components in music, are the most important. But that doesn't mean that the secondary components (tempo, dynamics, articulation, etc.) are not. I would say, take leeway where there is ambiguity, but don't contradict the score outright (i.e. forte means forte, not piano).
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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Wow, pianojerome is so eloquent ..
I remember reading about this story. A performer had painstakingly learned a new piece that a composer had just written, and fretted endlessly about not adhering to the composer's score accurately enough. The performer then played the piece for the composer, did a terrible job at that (in terms of following the scores, you know how difficult those contemporary pieces can be), and the composer couldn't care less about any of these minor details. The composer was just estatic that someone, anybody, was actually playing his work! (The performer was furious.)
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Also, if there are valid alternatives beyond the score, such as:
Debussy's structural changes in some of his Preludes as demonstrated in his recording of them;
Rachmaninov's one measure extended forte ending to his own G minor Prelude -- again a recording;
those Horowitz alterations that Rachmaninoff approved of (mentioned above);
then sure, I feel those are valid alternatives to the score. But ultimately there must be some kind of approval coming from the composer directly.
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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Originally posted by Janus Sachs: But ultimately there must be some kind of approval coming from the composer directly. Why? I apologize for repeating this simple "why" so often, but the answer you gave is really just a restatement of the question.
Sam
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One reason is the slippery slope -- if we start changing the score one way or another, and those changes accumulate, over time the piece will certainly become a completely different monster from what the composer intended. One of the wonderful things about the original instruments movement is that the interpreters would often try to get rid of some of these awful traditions, such as the re-orchestrations of Beethoven symphonies (some of which are still done, alas!) and reveal something which hasn't been heard in centuries -- and arguably something closer to the thing itself. Another is that, since the composers are dead and we can't hold seances, any guess on what alterations the composer might approve of would be guesses at best and presumptuous at worst. So follow the sources (the score, composer approved alterations, etc.). We know Mahler altered his own scores (even structurally!) to suit particular performance venues, but can we say what alterations (if any) he would do for a venue he never performed in? Of course, changes can be made can be very effective if done tastefully, however that opens up the floor for tasteless alterations, and of course there is no guarantee that performers will have taste to begin with. So if in doubt, go back to the score. Honestly, "why" is of course the hardest question to answer, if it is at all answerable. The integrity of a piece of music is embodied in the score and how the composer/period expected it to be realized. I'm really not convinced you can be convinced otherwise, pianojerome. So, please go ahead, change dynamics, registers, add cadenzas, and play like a drunken sailor. And put those mustaches on the Mona Lisa.
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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Originally posted by pianojerome: Why?
I apologize for repeating this simple "why" so often, but the answer you gave is really just a restatement of the question. Well, because, for example, I've been studying for many years composition, and supposedly (which is an exxageration some times) every pitch, every dynamic, everything has it's place for a reason that the performer may not get. The performers are not there to analyse every corner of the piece, but to perform it. Being able to "unravel the thread" of the composition, in order to add or substract something, doesn't seem necessary. but in all honesty, composers do seem to do a better job composing, than the performers, that's why they're called composers. And usually (not always) there is a reason that things are where they are and they are as they are. But again, the performer's personality should also be present, even if it means bypasing certain things. And certainly one cannot get permition from Bach, or Vivaldi, or heck Ligeti, so no reason for permition really.
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Well, because, for example, I've been studying for many years composition, and supposedly (which is an exxageration some times) every pitch, every dynamic, everything has it's place for a reason that the performer may not get. Woah. We're approaching some scary territory here. Composers are not gods or superhuman beings, they are/were regular people just like you and me who had a talent in composing music. The fact that they are composers who are now gone does not make them perfect and the idea that all the composers have great grand plans in their music to every exact detail, that we mere mortals cannot understand, is a stretch. It is foolish to understate the talent and ability in the great composers but that doesn't mean we should start overstating it and talking about their ultimate plan for the universe (I mean music).
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Originally posted by Janus Sachs: I'm really not convinced you can be convinced otherwise, pianojerome. If I couldn't, then I wouldn't ask the question. It's actually a very good point you raise about the slippery slope. At what point can we still call it "Beethoven's Sonata" or "Mendelssohn's Variations", before necessitating "Mendelssohn-Horowitz"? (But, of course, it's not as much of an issue when a performer is only making one or two tasteful changes.) In other words, yes, I can definately be convinced otherwise. As a composer myself, I am not at all closed-minded on this important topic. Here is a disclaimer: whenever you read any post of mine, in any discussion, know that it isn't a trap. I'm always thinking and changing my views, and even if I don't change my stance on something, there's always room for more perspective.
Sam
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There are of course special cases. Here's one: we know that when Mozart revived his K. 459 Piano Concerto for a festive concert, he added trumpets and timpani parts to the orchestra, however those parts don't survive. So would it be wise to reconstruct those trumpet and timpani parts? I would say sure, as long as one has a thorough knowledge of Mozart's use of those instruments in his orchestration -- and it also helps that trumpets and timpani were the most limited instruments in Mozart's orchestra. And the trumpet and timpani (and clarinet) additions to Mozart's Eb Double Concerto made for the same concert survive, which gives a reconstructor more guidance. What about all those alterations that Chopin made for his students? One striking example is the forte ending to the Eb minor Polonaise, which is of course the opposite of the score's piano ending. Is such an alteration justified, even if the character is greatly changed? It's perhaps more of a case to case thing than anything else, but one thing for sure is that any changes to the score must be made with a thorough knowledge of the work, the composer, the period, performance practice of the composer/period, etc. to help increase the chances of any alterations being "tasteful", that intangible which cannot be pinned down but which must be present, or at least attempted.
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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Great thread, Sam! And I suspect you would get a very different reaction if you posted it on the nonclassical forum, where most of the replies would be along the lines of "huh? what's the big deal? Sure you can play it differently..."
George Winston, for example, has offered as one reason he resisted releasing sheet music for so long the fact that he plays his own compositions differently at each performance. So not even he feels that there is a single "right" way to perform his work.
I like the analogy from theater... a playwright puts directions in the script, but performances can vary considerably depending on the interpretations voiced by the actors and actresses. And it's not at all unheard of for actors and actresses to ad lib or change the words while on stage. Nobody cries foul there, although I suppose they would if the "interpretatons" are violently opposed to the author's original intent (Romeo and Juliet live! The Salesman doesn't die!).
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Here's another case -- Andreas Staier's daring recording of Mozart's famous Turkish rondo. Are the changes to the score idiomatic? Tasteful? True to the period and/or the composer? I'd be curious what others think of this unique take on such an overplayed piece.
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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It's been probably 6 months since I heard it, but I remember he added quite a bit. On the one hand, it almost sounds like a transcription or arrangement of Mozart -- on the other hand, the music almost begs such elaboration. It's not a complicated piece of music -- harmonically very simple, lots of exact and short repetitions, and the Turkish topic was something very exotic and even circus-like. I'd love to hear the piece with little knee-activated cymbals, as Mozart allegedly played it. The character of the music is very playful.
But would Staier do that with the 3rd movement of Chopin's 2nd Sonata? I doubt it.
So I did enjoy hearing his recording, as shocking as it was -- I wouldn't play it that way myself, because I'm not Staier (I seem to recall he added a lot to other pieces as well), but I don't mind hearing it.
Let me say this: I would not hold up Staier's recording as a "definitive", "benchmark" "reference." It's fun to listen to it and enjoy it, but certainly we should learn well what's written before making any (if any) alterations.
Sam
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Originally posted by pianojerome: But would Staier do that with the 3rd movement of Chopin's 2nd Sonata? I doubt it. Here's another case then -- do you think it is right to play the return of the A section of the funeral march forte instead of the indicated piano, which was apparently a long tradition? Even the not-too-old Katsaris recording (early 90s I believe) does it.
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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I imagine that it could be played convincingly either way -- well, if it's "a long tradition", then apparantly a lot of people were convinced enough to play it that way! But as for whether it is "right" -- I don't know the piece well enough to say, but I would venture to suggest that there might (or might not) be more than one "right" way of playing it.
You're bringing up some interesting examples.
Sam
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The rationale behind that Chopin tradition is extra-musical: the march approaches from a distance and thus gets louder (first A section), the listener/spectator momentarily gets lost in a daydream/reverie (B section), but reality and the march shatters the dream (A section return), thus the forte alteration. It makes sense extra-musically, but I wonder (scholar that I am) if Chopin himself gave this as an alternative (given the Eb minor Polonaise example above). And from the same sonata's finale, Chopin indicated from a student's copy that a particular passage is to be repeated "two or three times", though I don't have access to the score so I can't recall the bar numbers. Hardly anyone does that alternative. I suppose I'm just trying to tell myself that it really is a case to case issue, and that scholarship should not equal stuffiness. Still, it's better to be safe than sorry. Especially in competitions, I would expect.
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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In a competition, all individuality goes out the window. Of course. The extra-musical rationale is interesting, and it's mainly geared towards an intellectual, musical audience -- but how about the non-scholarly, non-musical crowd? Without a pre-concert lecture explaining that the march is or is not getting closer, they might simply enjoy it either way, simply because it sounds aesthetically pleasing either way. This is part of the trick here -- something that makes no logical sense to the musician can still sound aesthetically pleasing. But we can set the bar as high as possible, of course.
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There is a saying that fools jump in where angels fear to treat...so here I am.
The basic question posted by the OP seems to have altered from whether or not a performer should feel subservient to the composer to whether or not it is right to change a score.
My opinion (and everybody is free to have an opinion) is that we are, pretty much, bound by what the composer indicates is his/her desire as reflected by the score. Let me take a very simple example. In Chopin's Prelude, Op. 28, No. 4 I almost never hear this played as scored. Rather, there are a number of places in the piece that are played as if there were a ritardando noted -- yet there isn't. The only change noted in the score is the smorzando in the last five measures. Clearly, then, most people feel that they can change that aspect of the score.
So, is this an iron-clad rule? No, obviously not. Still, I think that such changes need to be more than just the whim of the performer. There needs to be a reason for any such change, and any change should not alter the underlying structure or feel for the composition.
Ed
"...a man ... should engage himself with the causes of the harmonious combination of sounds, and with the composition of music." Anatolius of Alexandria YouTube Channel
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Originally posted by Theowne: Well, because, for example, I've been studying for many years composition, and supposedly (which is an exxageration some times) every pitch, every dynamic, everything has it's place for a reason that the performer may not get. Woah. We're approaching some scary territory here.
Composers are not gods or superhuman beings, they are/were regular people just like you and me who had a talent in composing music. The fact that they are composers who are now gone does not make them perfect and the idea that all the composers have great grand plans in their music to every exact detail, that we mere mortals cannot understand, is a stretch. It is foolish to understate the talent and ability in the great composers but that doesn't mean we should start overstating it and talking about their ultimate plan for the universe (I mean music). Hem... If you had quoted my whole post you would see that I mentioned that it is an exxageratio, that maybe it happens, etc, with all reasonable doubt then. I'm not implying anything about better or worst, or god and mortals or anything and please don't take my words and half my posts out of context. What I'm saying is that a composer has a different job than a performer, if this makes sense to you and is not insulting. Because it shouldn't be insulting. And, well, just because any performer wants to start doing things to compositions, I don't exactly see the point after a certain extend. And by all means, again, in the end it's all music you can do whatever you like and put drums in Stravinsky (I have, for fun! ). He won't be mad now, would he? But I think that you are talking about "smaller" (with "") stuff, in which case I can excuse pretty much anything since it's also the personality and the opinion of the performer that needs to be seen. On topic now, since I stretched it a bit already: Mozart, Beethoven, Bach, they are long gone. They wrote music which was contempary at their time. Now it is outdated (how weird does this sound?????!?!!? ) but in all it is rather out of context, and I would expect that a performer should not follow "religiously" the way that... Bach should be played (for example which is how I've been taught). If one wants to put pedal, by all means, if one needs to exxagerate on the dynamics or switch them around, I have much of a problem in the idea. But, again, up to a point.
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You misinterpret what I say.
I never stated that a performer should follow the score entirely and NEVER sway away.
I just don't believe a performer should say "Hmm... I would rather play this Forte than Piano."
Why bother writing music with dynamic markings if they are simply there to be ignored?
The clown is watching you.
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Jeff,
Are you talking to me? Because I agree with you partly (mostly rather).
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No, with Pianojerome.
Yes, many of the composers are dead. The piece, however, is not. The piece was written with an intention, a thought and an emotion. A performer should bring out that in their own way. However, radical changes for the heck of it is not something that should be done.
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If I may budge in, since it interests me greatly. "For the heck of it", no, and certainly not out of ignorance. But Mozart is long dead and his music, I can't see it fit to todays time. It is out of date. So one could very well take the pieces and perform them as they will. Chances are that an educated performer will not do as he pleases really. Because, as I said, composers have a reason to put things where they put them (not always, ok? ) so chances are that tempering with something will result in... something worst. In that effect I have to admit that I've never liked Goulds performances of Bach (and Beethoven actually). Maybe I'm too much classically trained, but... This is my little "secret" (way to go for keeping a secret: Post it in a public forum! )
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Out of date?
What does this mean?
Mozart's music was written to fit specific constraints in terms of style and available instruments. His music was written to sound light and to do otherwise would completely ruin the piece. Taking a piece that was written under these constraints and 'modernizing' it would be impossible to do so well.
I am not a fan of Gould either. In fact, I am not a big fan of Horowitz either.
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Well it means that Mozarts music was written with a society in mind, sort of speak. Remember I do not wish to be absolute. But it's been SO long since Mozart wrote what he wrote that his music seems to be like a museum. "Don't photograph", "don't eat while in the museum", etc... I do realise and respect his options and his will in the end and I, as a pianist, never went to any extend to modernize anything. Instead I went to composition. But it is interesting that his music should remain for all time as it is. People today are different, people act differently, think differently, have vastly different (and many more) inputs and incoming messages. Shouldn't that be reflected in someone's performance? Should we hang on to a style which "belongs" (notice the ", I'm not so sure how else to say it) to an era long dead? On the other hand, especially in the case of Mozart, who is respected almost like "god" I have to say that if you move anything the whole thing crumbles and falls. Mozart is... "perfect". (heh... on the other hand, I'm wondering if anyone, even the composer, would realise someone playing a few wrong pitches in a serial piece... like one of Boulezes for example! hahaha)
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I do not feel Mozart is outdated at all. In fact, I don't believe there is a such thing as outdated music, at least not for the sole reason that it is old.
Differing interpretations of a piece is fine, as I have stated numerous times. However, if an interpretation contradicts the original intent of the piece, then there is a problem.
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I am probably looking at it too much as a composer... :-/ I do agree with you actually (as I did state a few posts back). Now after 2 days of registration and 41 posts ,it's time to relax, stop being such an overposter and go to my college for a change... This, so far, has been a most enjoyable discussion.
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If, after careful consideration, the performer feels 'ff' would be better than the composer's written 'pp', then why should the performer necessarily conform to the composer's notation? I don't quite get this discussion. Of course the performer is always free to do absolutely anything. The only limitation I can think of is if a work is distorted so much that it is doubtful whether the composer is still the composer - I presume there are copyright laws against me taking your work, distorting it, and still presenting it as your. Apart from that the performer may make judgements that make a performance less agreeable to some. For example some like Gould and some not. Personally I don't like his Beethoven so much. But I certainly don't think those performances are "wrong". I think a performer should always play in the way she thinks is best.
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Originally posted by Jeff135: if they are simply there to be ignored? Not to be ignored --- but sometimes changed. Ignoring implies that one doesn't even consider what's written. Changing implies that one considers it very carefully, and then makes a musical decision based on careful study.
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Originally posted by Nikolas: Hem... If you had quoted my whole post you would see that I mentioned that it is an exxageratio, that maybe it happens, etc, with all reasonable doubt then. I'm not implying anything about better or worst, or god and mortals or anything and please don't take my words and half my posts out of context. What I'm saying is that a composer has a different job than a performer, if this makes sense to you and is not insulting. Because it shouldn't be insulting. [/QUOTE] Hello Nikolas, The reason I quoted only that was because I was responding to the idea that you brought up (and agreed it was an exaggeration), not you personally. (You will notice I only made comment on the idea and never mentioned you)
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I pasted this from the LANg Lang thread.
quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Originally posted by pianojerome:
quote: -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- Originally posted by pianoloverus: So if Beethoven writes "p" you think it's OK to play "f"? My interpretation of Jeff's statement is that he thinks the performer should follow the composer's markings in the score (which I totally agree with). --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
If, after much careful consideration, the performer thinks that 'p' is much better (as my teacher strongly believes about the ending of Tchaikovsky's dumka (marked ff), or if Horowitz thinks that Mendelssohn's Variations should end FFF instead of pp), then all the power to him. Why?
1. There is no risk of offending the composer. (if that is an important concern) Mendelssohn is dead, so he won't know how Horowitz played his Variations Serieuses ending.
2. Mendelssohn could be wrong, too -- fff might sound better than pp in this context, and if that's the case, then we shouldn't play it the "worse" way simply because Mendelssohn made a mistake. We should, of course, play it the "better" way.
3. There are multiple ways of interpreting music, and people prefer different interpretations -- we agree on this -- and it would be just as incompatible to say that Mendelssohn's way is the only correct way, just as it would be to say that Horowitz's or Thibaudet's or Perahia's way is the only correct way. We might reasonably disagree with Horowitz's ending -- not simply because it's different from Mendelssohn's ending -- just as we might reasonably disagree with Mendelssohn's ending.
4. Composers have been known to change their minds. Horowitz made suggestions to Rachmaninov for significant alterations, and Rach approved some of them. Bartok recorded his "6 Romanian Dances" (which were actually not his own tunes anyway) at least 3 times, for 3 different instrumentations, and he made all sorts of rhythmic/note/register changes each time. It's obviously much more politically correct if the composer can approve the changes; but if the composer is dead, then that doesn't change the notion that he might not have minded various changes.... if that is actually important.
There are 4 reasons. I'm not suggestion making these changes willy-nilly -- no, of course not. But after careful study and thought about the music, one feels a change would improve the music, there are 4 reasons why I think the change isn't so blasphemous.
So now, I'll ask you (and others):
If, after careful consideration, the performer feels 'ff' would be better than the composer's written 'pp', then why should the performer necessarily conform to the composer's notation?
Please be specific. I know that "the composer is the composer" -- that's quite obvious! --------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I don't think saying Horowitz made a change to a piece is such a good reason for arguing that anyone else should, Here are a few reasons why:
1. Horowitz was a very willful player and often out to impress the audience. He made this change because he thought the ppp ending wasn't dramatic enough. I have heard a Jeffrey Siegel lecutre where he played the Mendelssohn and explained this. He chose to play the ppp ending which I personally thought was much more effective.
But I also think it has something to do with Horowitz vs. Pianojerome(no offense intended!)It reminds me of the story where Hoffman asked Anton Rubinstein why Rubinstein always made him follow the composer's markings while Rubinstein sometimes ignored them. Rubinstein's reply was something like "You can play it my way when you reach my age IF YOU CAN."
2. I have been to at least 150 master classes done by many different teachers(but not 150 different teahcers!). In the great majority of these classes the teacher complains if the student makes the *smallest* deviation from printed score. Things like "did the composer say to crescendo there(on just some small phrase)?" or "I don't see a staccato on that note" seem to be repeated endlessly in thses classes.
3. I don't think saying a composer made changes to *his* composition jusitifies this being done by the performer. I think following the composer's markings has something to do with respect for the the composer.
__________________________________________________ I think when playing for one's own pleasure it is OK to make changes but not in a professional performance.
Having said all this I don't think that making changes in a thoughtful way(and,I think, you PJ are among the most thoughtful people on this forum) as you suggested is a terrible thing. It's just not the best option IMHO.
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Who are the enforcers of performance practice? And what is the rationale?
Each other, that's who: The tradition of performance practice daily reinforced by members of the classical music community schoolmarming each other with the attitude of "should" and "ought to." It makes me gnash my teeth.
The rationale? I don't hear one in this thread. I'm a traditionalist myself, and feel that their is value in maintaining a tradition. Perhaps a rationale can be found in that idea.
Tomasino
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Somewhat related to this thread, I read somewhere that one of Horowitz's recordings of Liszt's B minor Sonata starts out loud rather than the indicated soft. Could someone confirm this for me? In a live performance I could imagine this being very effective (shock the audience at the opening!), but if it becomes a performance tradition replicated by all it looses its novelty. And here's another tradition that I sometimes hear and which still irks me a little: in the very opening of Ravel's Scarbo, a lot of pianists establish a rather slow tempo, and then play those damn repeated notes as fast as possible, at a tempo completely unrelated to the established tempo. I know there are some early recordings of Scarbo made by friends of Ravel, so I should perhaps check those out and see if this particular tradition goes back that far.
Die Krebs gehn zurucke, Die Stockfisch bleiben dicke, Die Karpfen viel fressen, Die Predigt vergessen.
Die Predigt hat g'fallen. Sie bleiben wie alle.
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i'm always surprised when mr. teacher or mrs. director request that i play everything as written in it's proper context... altho i do a fair amount of enhancement improvisation for mrs. director.
it seems very natural to me to adapt the music to my smaller hands or add a little oomph.
one of my biggest regrets is that Bach did not have the opportunity to play his music on the grands of today.. he would have had so much fun, and with a sustaining pedal and the wonderful bass notes available, most likely would have written some of his music differently. in the privacy of my home, and even sometimes in public i make imaginary accomodations. i certainly do not attempt to make my piano sound like a tinkly harpsichord.
i haven't been struck by lightening yet.
accompanist/organist.. a non-MTNA teacher to a few
love and peace, Õun (apple in Estonian)
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Hes, he likely would have used pedal.
But then again, if Bach was alive today, would his pieces be remotely the same? As I stated before, much of Bach's composing style for the keyboard was done due to the style of the period, likely influenced by the instruments they had then.
I believe that had he been alive in the 20th century his music would have turned out a lot like the more modern composers such as Messiaen or Ginastera. You cannot use that argument to say "it's outdated." No, it was written in a certain style during a certain time period for certain instrumets, and I can't really think of any way that changing the style so drastically would do any good.
No, you should not mimic a harpsichord, but one must keep in mind why the piece was composed a certain way. Bach wrote his music the way he did to accomodate the limits that the Harpsichord presented which is why it has been accepted generally to make it sound detatched.
We have a full grand piano now with a wide capability for different textures and dynamics. But to say that because we have modern instruments and improved ones doesn't mean we should modernize Bach because nobody knows HOW he would have composed if he had a full sized grand piano. Chances are, it would not be anything like the Bach we know today.
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Just to note something...
I was pondering about this thread, when I was driving in London and I was listening th classic fm (shame on me, I know! :p ) Thing is that they played a butchered version of Rachmaninov's variations to the theme of Paganini (the well known piece). They played variation No. 17? 18? Something like that.
Then they played 2nd movement from Dvorak Symphony No. 9!!!!!!
I felt really weird and ****ed of as well!
Imagine we are having trouble with changing 1 dynamic and these people beep off the masterpieces!
After that, I was honestly thinking that I probably have every right to do whatever I want with music... (<-not really serious but I am really feeling bad about classic fm, although I do understand the reasons they do it)
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Herein may be the answer to SAM's query, WHY?
Tomasino quoting himself above:
"The rationale? I don't hear one in this thread. I'm a traditionalist myself, and feel that there is value in maintaining a tradition. Perhaps a rationale can be found in that idea."
Just after I posted that, I recalled an essay by T.S. Ellit entitled "Tradition and the Individual Talent." This essay gives some heft and rationale to my point of view: that it is a good thing to pay attention to a composer's intent--as best it can be determined--and to pay some heed to the performance practices of the past; And why it is not OK to simply ignore the traditions of classical music, be it substituting an F for a P, playing a passage way too fast, or playing Schubert's Impromptu #3, opus 90, in G major because it's easier than G flat major.
What follows is not Elliot's intact essay, but Wikipedia's reduction of it. The essay is about poetry, but it certainly appllies to all artistic endeavor.
Here we go:
"For Eliot, the term “tradition†is imbued with a special and complex character. It represents a “simultaneous order,†by which Eliot means a historical timelessness – a fusion of past and present – and, at the same time, a sense of present temporality. A poet must embody “the whole of the literature of Europe from Homer,†while, simultaneously, expressing his contemporary environment. Eliot challenges our common perception that a poet’s greatness and individuality lies in his departure from his predecessors. Rather, Eliot argues that “the most individual parts of his (the poet) work may be those in which the dead poets, his ancestors, assert their immortality most vigorously.†Eliot claims that this "historical sense," that is, not only a resemblance to traditional works, but an awareness and understanding of their relation to his poetry.
But, this fidelity to tradition does not require the great poet to forfeit novelty in an act of surrender to repetition. Rather, Eliot has a much more dynamic and progressive conception of the poetic process. Novelty is possible, and only possible, through tapping into tradition. When a poet engages in the creation of new work, he realizes an aesthetic “ideal order,†as it has been established by the literary tradition that has come before him. As such, the act of artistic creation does not take place in a vacuum. The introduction of a new work alters the cohesion of this existing order, and causes a readjustment of the old in order to accommodate the new. Thus, the inclusion of the new work alters the way in which the past is seen, elements of the past that are noted and realized. In Eliot’s own words: “What happens when a new work of art is created is something that happens simultaneously to all the works of art that preceded it.†Eliot refers to this organic tradition, this developing canon, as the “mind of Europe.†The private mind is subsumed by this more massive one.
This leads to Eliot’s so-called "Impersonal Theory" of poetry. Since the poet engages in a “continual surrender of himself†to the vast order of tradition, artistic creation is a process of depersonalization. The mature poet is viewed as a medium, through which tradition is channeled and elaborated. He compares the poet to a catalyst in a chemical reaction, in which the reactants are feelings and emotions that are synthesized to create an artistic image that captures and relays these same feelings and emotions. While the mind of the poet is necessary for the production, it emerges unaffected by the process. The artist stores feelings and emotions and properly unites them into a specific combination, which is the artistic product. What lends greatness to a work of art is not the feelings and emotions themselves, but the nature of the artistic process by which they are synthesized. The artist is responsible for creating “the pressure, so to speak, under which the fusion takes place.†And, it is the intensity of fusion that renders art great. In this view, Eliot rejects the theory that art expresses metaphysical unity in the soul of the poet. The poet is a depersonalized vessel, a mere medium.
Great works do not express the personal emotion of the poet. The poet does not reveal his own unique and novel emotions, but rather, by drawing on ordinary ones and channeling them through the intensity of poetry, he expresses feelings that surpass, altogether, experienced emotion. This is what Eliot intends when he discusses poetry as an “escape from emotion.†Since successful poetry is impersonal and, therefore, exists independent of its poet, it outlives the poet and can incorporate into the timeless “ideal order†of the “living†literary tradition. Another essay found in Selected Essays relates to this notion of the impersonal poet. In “Hamlet and His Problems†Eliot presents the phrase “objective correlative.†The theory is that the expression of emotion in art can be achieved by a specific, and almost formulaic, prescription of a set of objects, including events and situations. A particular emotion is created by presenting its correlated objective sign. The author is depersonalized in this conception, since he is the mere effecter of the sign. And, it is the sign, and not the poet, which creates emotion.
Despite the title of the essay, Eliot never directly mentions the word talent in the entirety of the essay. Instead, he seems to focus solely on the “tradition†aspect of his essay. This implies that the “Individual Talent†mentioned here is not what is conventionally considered to be talent, but instead, in Eliot’s definition, it is in fact the ability to connect with Tradition (Eliot’s definition), and create something which has the merit to become a part of it.
The implications here separates Eliot’s idea of talent from the conventional definition (just as his idea of Tradition is separate from the conventional definition), one so far from it, perhaps, that he chooses never to directly label it as talent. Whereas the conventional definition of talent, especially in the arts, is a genius that one is born with. Not so for Eliot. Instead, talent is acquired through a careful study of poetry, claiming that Tradition, “cannot be inherited, and if you want it, you must obtain it by great labour.†Eliot asserts that it is absolutely necessary for the poet to be studied, to have an understanding of the poets before him, and to be well versed enough that he can understand and incorporate the “mind of Europe†into his poetry. But the poet’s study is unique – it is knowledge which “does not encroach,†and which does not “deaden or pervert poetic sensibility.†It is, to put it most simply, a poetic knowledge – knowledge observed through a poetic lens. This ideal implies that knowledge gleaned by a poet is not knowledge of facts, but knowledge which leads to a greater understanding of the mind of Europe. As Eliot explains, “Shakespeare acquired more essential history from Plutarch than most men could from the whole British Museum.â€"
"Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do so with all thy might." Ecclesiastes 9:10
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Originally posted by Nikolas: I was pondering about this thread, when I was driving in London and I was listening th classic fm (shame on me, I know! :p ) Thing is that they played a butchered version of Rachmaninov's variations to the theme of Paganini (the well known piece). They played variation No. 17? 18? Something like that.
Then they played 2nd movement from Dvorak Symphony No. 9!!!!!! I've heard that back in Beethoven's days, it wasn't at all uncommon to add some small easy listening pieces between the movements of symphonies or concertos, just to make the listening experience a little less heavy. Also, Liszt regularly performed only the last three movements of his transcription of Beethoven's 6th in his recitals. Guess those were the most effective movements, the movements that the audience wanted to hear. If classic fm wishes to play only part of a work, that's fine with me. But I do hate those "best of" CD's that don't feature a single whole work, only single movements from larger works. The issue discussed here is quite complicated. Of course, the text should be respected, but I also think the performer should be allowed some personal freedom. I actually find it quite refreshing when someone takes a new approach to an old work. Of course, Mozart always sounds good if you play it well according to the tradition, but that's not necessarily the only way it can be fascinating music. To appreciate the beauty in an alternative interpretation, the listeners must be able to switch of their sence of tradition and listen to the performance as it is, not in comparison to what they are used to hearing, a feat many classical musicians aren't capable of. This is why there are so many performers who are hailed by the masses but despised among other classically trained musicians. Personally, I don't understand why there must be so much anger towards anyone who makes something a bit different. There is already millions of pianists who perform classical music the traditional way, why shouldn't a few be allowed to something else? The totalitarianism that seems to be the goal of many people (not refering to anyone in particular on this forum, but I'm sure you all know the "play it right or don't play at all"-people) is certainly not healthy for classical music as an art form. All forms of art depend on artistic freedom. Performing music is an art form, therefore nothing should be forbidden. The art of the actual compositions was created a long time ago and it already exists in the form of sheet music and often hundreds of recordings, and this work of art does not suffer any great damage from being treated differently at some occasion. So what about respecting the composers intentions? How many directors respect Shakespeare by trying to put up authentic performances? Are those who don't strive for authenticity violating Shakespeare? The difference between music and drama is of course that the essential message is easier to find in Shakespeare. Therefore it's easier to alter it greatly while still preserving the essentials. I guess this is why we allow the great masters more freedom, they can understand the music and they can understand the impact of their changes. Students should of course study the music exactly as written. It's a bit like learning to compose, only when you are very fluent in the rules of voice leading, you can start learning how to break them.
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Originally posted by Janus Sachs: One reason is the slippery slope -- if we start changing the score one way or another, and those changes accumulate, over time the piece will certainly become a completely different monster from what the composer intended. One of the wonderful things about the original instruments movement is that the interpreters would often try to get rid of some of these awful traditions, such as the re-orchestrations of Beethoven symphonies (some of which are still done, alas!) and reveal something which hasn't been heard in centuries -- and arguably something closer to the thing itself. Another is that, since the composers are dead and we can't hold seances, any guess on what alterations the composer might approve of would be guesses at best and presumptuous at worst. So follow the sources (the score, composer approved alterations, etc.). We know Mahler altered his own scores (even structurally!) to suit particular performance venues, but can we say what alterations (if any) he would do for a venue he never performed in? Of course, changes can be made can be very effective if done tastefully, however that opens up the floor for tasteless alterations, and of course there is no guarantee that performers will have taste to begin with. So if in doubt, go back to the score. Honestly, "why" is of course the hardest question to answer, if it is at all answerable. The integrity of a piece of music is embodied in the score and how the composer/period expected it to be realized. I'm really not convinced you can be convinced otherwise, pianojerome. So, please go ahead, change dynamics, registers, add cadenzas, and play like a drunken sailor. And put those mustaches on the Mona Lisa. If a performer knows what he's doing then I see no reason why he shouldn't do it, if it ends up being a good interpretation. Saying that performers shouldn't make their own interpretations because it opens up the floor for tasteless interpretations is like saying that composers should never write music because it opens up the possibility of tasteless music coming into existence. We wouldn't be close to where we are right now. Originally posted by Janus Sachs: one thing for sure is that any changes to the score must be made with a thorough knowledge of the work, the composer, the period, performance practice of the composer/period, etc. to help increase the chances of any alterations being "tasteful", that intangible which cannot be pinned down but which must be present, or at least attempted. I agree with that better. And it is certainly not impossible to study a work thoroughly. Also I for one think that music is written to be expressed. If the composer writes some detail in his music and not one performer or listener, even after thorough studying, picks it up, it might as well not be there.
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To me, this seems to revolve around issues about what the composition is and what the performance is. My attitude about it is basically the most radical option: the performer is free to do anything at all with a score. The score still remains intact for other performers and score-readers, so essentially, no score is harmed, whether the performer changes it a little or a lot. And anyway, the whole worshipping-of-the-score thing is a fairly recent development in music history (even though composers have always complained about what performers do).
But even if I think performers are completely free to do whatever they want (and how are you going to stop them if you don't agree?), I don't automatically think it's a good thing for every performer to stray far from the score. There are all sorts of issues of taste, context, the performer's musicality, etc. that enter into the picture. All sorts of performance can appeal to me, though, from the most straitlaced score-honoring one to the most I-just-gotta-be-me type that essentially is an improvisation on what's written. I don't see the point of deciding that one way is the only way.
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Originally posted by wr: (and how are you going to stop them if you don't agree?) I could see a Piano Police existing in the near future.
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Originally posted by Loki: Originally posted by wr: [b] (and how are you going to stop them if you don't agree?) I could see a Piano Police existing in the near future. [/b]Ahh piano big brother. Always watching. Maybe there should be some Piano rebels out against the man?
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Originally posted by TheMadMan86: Originally posted by Loki: [b] Originally posted by wr: [b] (and how are you going to stop them if you don't agree?) I could see a Piano Police existing in the near future. [/b] Ahh piano big brother. Always watching. Maybe there should be some Piano rebels out against the man? [/b]I could see the piano rebels, locking themselves away in a concert hall, waiting for the piano police to storm the hall, putting up one last stand...
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Originally posted by Loki: Originally posted by TheMadMan86: [b] Originally posted by Loki: [b] </font><blockquote><font size="1" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">quote:</font><hr /><font size="2" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">Originally posted by wr: <strong> (and how are you going to stop them if you don't agree?) I could see a Piano Police existing in the near future. [/b] Ahh piano big brother. Always watching. Maybe there should be some Piano rebels out against the man? [/b]I could see the piano rebels, locking themselves away in a concert hall, waiting for the piano police to storm the hall, putting up one last stand... </strong></font><hr /></blockquote><font size="2" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">...While playing as LOUD as possible and as FAST as possible the 1st movement of Beethoven's Moonlight sonata!
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Originally posted by Nikolas: Originally posted by Loki: [b] Originally posted by TheMadMan86: [b] </font><blockquote><font size="1" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">quote:</font><hr /><font size="2" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">Originally posted by Loki: <strong> </font><blockquote><font size="1" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">quote:</font><hr /><font size="2" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">Originally posted by wr: <strong> (and how are you going to stop them if you don't agree?) I could see a Piano Police existing in the near future. [/b] Ahh piano big brother. Always watching. Maybe there should be some Piano rebels out against the man? [/b]I could see the piano rebels, locking themselves away in a concert hall, waiting for the piano police to storm the hall, putting up one last stand... </strong></font><hr /></blockquote><font size="2" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">...While playing as LOUD as possible and as FAST as possible the 1st movement of Beethoven's Moonlight sonata! </strong></font><hr /></blockquote><font size="2" face="Verdana, Helvetica, sans-serif">Just remember, in the end, there can be only one!*insert queen music on piano here*
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By changing the score because one thinks it would sound better thus is dangerous as the thinking it's better thus is probably a result of not understanding the composer's intentions.
Patience's the best teacher, and time the best critic. - F.F.Chopin
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I'm dissappointed in the lack of response to my last post above, in which I posted a summation of T. S. Elliot's essay "Tradition and the Individual Talent."
It bears very much on this thread, and offers a new and fully articulated perspective on this subject.
It's long, I admit, and maybe a difficult read--but it's worth it.
Tomasino
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Pianists presuming to "improve" a composer's original works are the epitome of arrogance in my opinion; they are indicative of the increasingly self-centered society in which we live. It seems to me these pianists want more of the limelight, to show how equal they are to the composer (or worse, how much better they are than the composer). The cold fact is: one hundred years from now people will still be discussing these composers, whereas an exceedingly few concert pianists will be remembered. If you want the lion's share of history's limelight, you might as well start composing! As a disclaimer I will admit that as an accompanist I occasionally modify a score to suit the situation - however these are most often orchestral reductions, which are only approximations of the composer's intentions. When I do play a solo composition all of my experience is brought to bear in delivering the most faithful rendition of what I understand the composer's intentions to be. This takes much study and preparation. Any artist naturally brings their own personality to a performance - it almost cannot be helped. But respect is shown when the pianist excercises restraint in deference to the composer. A virtuoso might choose certain works which allow them a little more leeway to show off their talents. Originally posted by pianojerome: 1. There is no risk of offending the composer. (if that is an important concern) Mendelssohn is dead, so he won't know how Horowitz played his Variations Serieuses ending.
No risk of offending dead composers? Can any of us be so sure about that?! Much better to honor the dead, to whom we owe so much.
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Originally posted by tomasino: I'm dissappointed in the lack of response to my last post above, in which I posted a summation of T. S. Elliot's essay "Tradition and the Individual Talent." It happens to me all the time, don't worry! (of course this is a joke). I can't say that it bears a lot with this thread though, because the issue here is not the poets (which in music's case would be the composers, right?) but the performers (in which there is no equivelant in poetry, not in such manner as performers are here). I found this essay and these ideas highly interesting however. I do think that I agree that one has every last drop of tradition inside (from Homer to today) and goes on being contemporary however. It is exactly what I've been blabbering about to young composers, who only wish to stick to strict tonality... (but this, again, is totally off topic, which I am SO used to doing so many times) On the matter at hand, something, which I don't think has been brought up yet: We are all talking about solo performances right? Cause otherwise a solist in a concerto would seriously be in trouble, was (s)he not following the score "exactly". And to contrary to what some people may think (not in here, but in general), it's not that the pianist will walk in the room and state what he wants to do and the orchestra + conductor will follow. In such cases one needs to follow the score, right? Actually in any case with more than 1 performer all performers need to follow the score. Of course in chamber music they can all agree to some issues, and in orcehstral music, they all follow what the conductor says. But I wouldn't image that the parts would read "FF" and the conductor would ask for a "p" instead...
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Nikolas,
Of course there is an equivalence to performers. Don't performers work in a "tradition" of performance practice? This essay has everything to do with this thread. Simply substitute the word "artist" for "poet," and you'll see that T. S. Eliot's essay encompasses all traditiions, from pottery making to performance art, and certainly has everything to do with the subject at hand.
Tomasino
"Whatsoever thy hand findeth to do, do so with all thy might." Ecclesiastes 9:10
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Originally posted by whippen boy: Pianists presuming to "improve" a composer's original works are the epitome of arrogance in my opinion; they are indicative of the increasingly self-centered society in which we live.
Ummm, how can it be indicative of the increasingly self-centered society in which we live when in fact it was much more common in times past? For example, I don't know of any pianist today who messes with the ending of Liszt's La Leggierezza, but long ago pianists frequently played a different loud and flashy ending to that etude composed by someone else (I forget the name right now, but it was some famous pianist). I think that in general performance today is extremely chaste and rather depressingly puritanical, compared to the times in which much of the music we play was written. Where's our modern equivalent of Dreyshock playing the Chopin Revolutionary etude with the left hand in octaves? Or, for that matter, Brahms' version in sixths of another Chopin etude? Or all those concerts where it was considered okay to play just one movement of a multi-movement work? And the thing that is important to remember is that composers prior to our current composer-centric era actually expected that their music would as likely as not be subject to all sort of changes by performers and might be "repurposed" in any way a performer could think of. After all, in the 19th century, there was a whole industry of composers creating piano works out of other composers' operatic output, and that's a pretty major departure from "composer intent", jumping from vocal and orchestral stage productions to parlor piano, but I don't think many composers complained. And I dare say most composers from that time would be utterly flabbergasted at the kind of reverential attitude towards scores that is currently in vogue. wr
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Hi wr,
Just to add that the cadenza prior to Beethoven pretty much was... an imporvisation from the pianist (not many written cadenzas for Mozarts concertos as far as I know, and certainly not from the composer himself).
This has eclipsed and it is a pity, but then again contemporary classical music has moved so much further than I would imagine it being difficult to temper with it, even on the fly.
(i'm cursed to being right in the middle and not having a much biased opinion for myself... ah well).
What is interesting is that "classical music" (concert hall music) takes up a small part of music today. Nobody will mind covering... Radiohead or eminem and doing whatever you wish. It's been done repeatadely. Things are NOT so bad then.
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Originally posted by tomasino: I'm dissappointed in the lack of response to my last post above, in which I posted a summation of T. S. Elliot's essay "Tradition and the Individual Talent."
It bears very much on this thread, and offers a new and fully articulated perspective on this subject.
It's long, I admit, and maybe a difficult read--but it's worth it.
Tomasino I did certainly read your quotes Tomasino, and thank you very much for posting them. In fact, I feel it's the most revealing group of ideas of this thread because it face us to the troubles of art, individuality, life, time, tradition and uses. I'm coming back to the forum, because I feel I have a couple of things to say about this theme.
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Originally posted by Cultor: [QUOTE]Originally posted by tomasino: [qb] I'm dissappointed in the lack of response to my last post above, in which I posted a summation of T. S. Elliot's essay "Tradition and the Individual Talent."
It bears very much on this thread, and offers a new and fully articulated perspective on this subject.
It's long, I admit, and maybe a difficult read--but it's worth it.
Tomasino I did certainly read your Eliot's quote Tomasino, and thank you very much for posting it. In fact, I feel it's the most revealing group of ideas of this thread because it face us to the troubles of art, individuality, life, time, tradition and uses. I'm coming back to the forum, because I feel I have a couple of things to say about this topic.
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Some spare thoughts on persons, time, context, music nature and the burden of traditions.
We can find three persons or music protagonists in the musical communicative process:
The composer. The interpreter. The listener.
And we deal with several correspondent historical, social and contextual times:
The time and context in which the composer composed the work. The time and context in which the interpreter interprets. The time and context in which the listener hears the piece.
These times and contexts do not always coincide. When I say context, I mean that each moment of human history brings it’s own uses, it’s own way of doing the things and perceiving and representing the reality. We modulate our individual perceptions accordingly our contemporary time context and it’s usually difficult, if not impossible, to completely escape from it. One way of considering tradition is as the historic weight and inertia of certain human uses. May times we feel it as a burden that pushes us to advance to the future but looking backwards. It’s reserved for the brave, or the irresponsible, to truly depart from traditions. We feel protected by traditions because they gives us a direction, a sense and relates us with the past from where we come.
Then it happens that the music is a very spiritual art which is represented by a score, a reasonably precise written representation of sounds. Changing the old uses and interpreting the music in a new way will not harm the original score, something that don’t happen with other forms of art, like painting or sculpture. I mean, if we brake La Pietá into tiny pieces of marble, besides changing the original meaning, we change for ever the original form. Of course for doing such we may certainly be jailed. Not so with the music. Music nature is spiritual and, as an art of time and memory, is newborn each time it’s performed and listened. No risks to ruin the score. Just the actual performing.
Another important fact is that music lives by itself. Many times the composer (as noted by Eliot) impersonates his epoch and re-presents it musically becoming the vehicle of higher and bigger social energies. Music has it’s own embedded tempos and dynamics, an existence of it’s own, intimately related to the time and the context in which it was created. A simple example: we can’t change the dynamics of the opening piano solo in the second movement of Mozart’s Piano Concerto N° 23. It would be ridiculous to play those initial bars fff because the music itself (minor tonality, sad mood, loneliness of the piano solo, insisting pulse over a pastoral elegiac tempo, etc.) asks to be played p.
So, abruptly departing from traditions or breaking the nature of music figures and themes is possible but extremely dangerous. When we change some music parameter we change the meaning, superimposing our own contemporary and personal times and meanings. Of course its factible; we are free persons. I remember hearing a huge symphonic piece, very extended and chaotic, from a German composer, in which small fragments of Mozart music appeared here and there totally out of context. It was like seeing rests of some famous monument after a devastating nuclear war and you ended up feeling somewhat sad for all that was lost. Interesting. Mozart’s music, although rooted in old and venerable traditions was manipulated at the cost of breaking the temporal, historical and contextual original figurations and thus depriving it from its former sense. It was used. Well used, I must accept.
That’s an extreme example of deconstruction, I know. To constrain this subject to the more punctual problem of interpreting a piece of music, I would say that the weight of traditions (time, uses, historic inertia, contextual influences, etc.) added to the embodied meaning of the music “creature†both create a force, a very difficult and dangerous to change driving vector. Can we do it; can we twist the music form? Yes, we can. What for? May be to use it as a quote, to add something else to others music, to say something personal and contemporary, etc. Is it worth? Why not? It depends on our intention.
What I finally think is that nothing in art should be the result of just individual whims. We can change or even deny our traditions if we want, but it’s better to do it with a precise and exhaustive knowledge of what we are doing, why we are doing it and the risks we run when we do it. After all those are family jewels.
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No, with Pianojerome.
Yes, many of the composers are dead. The piece, however, is not. The piece was written with an intention, a thought and an emotion. A performer should bring out that in their own way. However, radical changes for the heck of it is not something that should be done.
this i agree with... yea jeff you are pretty right there
Go emo Play piano hail chopin and liszt
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Piano
by Gino2 - 04/17/24 02:34 PM
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Piano
by Gino2 - 04/17/24 02:23 PM
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