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#544159 06/02/02 05:45 PM
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In the anthology “More Giants of Jazz Piano” there is an arrangement of A Foggy Day by Gershwin. There is the notation 8va---- followed by 15 ma----. I know 8va means an octave higher than written, but what does 15 ma mean? Could it mean to be played 15 steps higher than written, and if so why not 16 or 2x8,which would leave the note name the same?

#544160 06/02/02 07:50 PM
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8va is short for the Italian "ottava" meaning "eighth" - so you play an eighth (an octave) above the written pitches.

15ma is short for the Italian "quindicesima" meaning "fifteenth" - so you play a fifteenth (two octaves - don't count the middle note twice!) above the written pitches.

16, by the way, would be incorrect, as a sixteenth above C is a D. Adding intervals that way doesn't work. Think about it, two 2nds make a 3rd: C - D, D - E. (In other words, in the land of intervals, 2+2 does not equal 4!)

#544161 06/02/02 10:27 PM
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It arises from the fact that zero equals one!

(That is, a unison means no difference.) Every other added octave above the first is seven more, numberwise.


There is no end of learning. -Robert Schumann Rules for Young Musicians
#544162 06/03/02 12:00 AM
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Quote
Originally posted by Palindrome:
It arises from the fact that zero equals one!
Well, an old math teacher of mine showed us how to make 1=2. There was just one flaw in the whole thing. We turned the numbers into variables and started adding, subtracting, multiplying, and dividing, and if you follow it through, you see that it eventually gets to a number divided by 0. Its IMPOSSIBLE to divide anything by zero!!! Which just went to prove the whole equation wrong. 1 does not = 2. Took us (the students) a while to figure that one out though!!!


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#544163 06/03/02 12:24 AM
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That reminds me of this algebraic trick:

1 = 1
1 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + ...
1 = 1 + (-1+1) + (-1+1) + (-1+1) + ...
1 = 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ...
1 = (1 - 1) + (1 - 1) + (1 - 1) + ...
1 = 0 + 0 + 0 + ...
1 = 0 (?!)

See if you can catch the flaw in this proof


"War does not determine who is right; only who is left."
#544164 06/03/02 10:04 AM
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Quote
Originally posted by StanSteel:
That reminds me of this algebraic trick:

1 = 1
1 = 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + ...
1 = 1 + (-1+1) + (-1+1) + (-1+1) + ...
1 = 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ...
1 = (1 - 1) + (1 - 1) + (1 - 1) + ...
1 = 0 + 0 + 0 + ...
1 = 0 (?!)

See if you can catch the flaw in this proof
Is this the pianoforum or did I accidentally log onto the nctm(national council of teachers of mathematics) website? (I teach math for a living but play piano for enjoyment)

#544165 06/03/02 10:39 AM
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You dropped a 1 from the third equation in the fourth equation or, more precisely, you truncated the series differently in these two equations.


Better to light one small candle than to curse the %&#$@#! darkness. :t:
#544166 06/04/02 12:18 AM
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You got it JBryan
That infinite series is diverging.
An infinite series can only be rearranged if it is converging.
Thanks for your interest smile


"War does not determine who is right; only who is left."

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