Originally posted by devils4ever:
Hi everyone,
I had my lesson yesterday and I'm trying my first pop piece. I've only played classical to this point.
I'm playing Billy Joel's "Piano Man" and in it is a chord symbol of "G11". Now, I've had music theory and I understand basics. A G11 chord is a G-B-D-F-A-C? But, I can't possibly play that many notes. So, I've been playing F-G-A-C. Is this correct?
Also, I have a "G/Fbass" symbol. So, I assume I would add a F below the G? Like this: F-G-B-D. I'm used to seeing the notes after the slash to be one of notes in the chord.
Thanks.
I have had some popular music training so I will have at your questions. Others can feel free to lambast me if I am incorrect.
Yes, a G11 would be GBDFAC. I would normally voice it with the bass and 7th in the left hand and then the other voices in the right. Often in commercial/pop/jazz there are chords with many notes. When there are too many to play, certain tones can be omitted. You can leave out the 5th of a chord and it will still retain its character and if playing in a rhythm section situation, you can even omit the bass if need me. The 3rd and 7th are what really give a chord its character.
Whenever you have the chord with a slash and another note, that is specifying a different bass than the tonic. And yes, in the case of G/F bass you would play a G maj. with an F in the bass. Many times you will see it without even saying its supposed to be a bass note and will look like this G/F or A/G. They are very common in Billy Joel.
Are you playing to accompany a vocalist or to just play on your own? That makes a difference as to how you voice the chord across the piano and what you emphasize.
Good luck with it, its quite different than classical!
